Theater director and blogger Isaac Butler of Parabasis issued me a challenge which I readily accepted, and made my first brief answer in the comments section attached to Round 1 of that challenge. Here is Mr. Butler's fairly accurate recap of that round:
AC Douglas says that the period of Hamlet and Polonius' social rank can be extracted from reading the text. All that remains is to dress Polonius in period garb befitting a public meeting of the King and his advisors, of which Polonius is chief. Scott Walters counters, as I hoped someone would, that Shakespeare's actors in fact did not wear period garb, and that period accuracy is a modern concern. Douglas counters (craftily!) that we live in the modern era. So be it.
Well, Mr. Butler is not at all satisfied with that, his "[s]o be it" notwithstanding, and so he sets up a Round 2 thusly:
The problem with the idea that we live in a period-conscious era and thus must be conscious of period is that we are attempting to be mere translators of Shakespeare's words to the stage. [Mr. Butler is here referring to my contention in my post, "The Director's Chair", that the director's role should be that of translator. Needless to say, his "mere" is his characterization, not mine, as is his notion of the nature of the task of the director-as-translator.] And thus I can tell you that even disregarding Scott's (very good) point, we are still in hot water if we put Polonius in period garb (the period here being the period in which the play takes place, rather than Shakespeare's period). What's the problem? Well, if you follow the text of the play, the play doesn't really take place in a specific period. The legend of Hamlet comes (in its earliest form) from Saxo, called Grammaticus, in a 12th century text. It's not exactly clear when Prince Amleth lived, but it was sometime in the dark ages. Shakespeare's play also, however, contains contemporary references to the acting practices of the specific year of 1601. There are also the weapons used in the final fight scene, namely rapier and dagger, which do not fit a middle ages time setting. Finally, there are the weapons used in the duel, and the clothing that Hamlet himself is described as wearing by Ophelia in Act II Sc. 1, namely a doublet, stockings, a hat, garters and a shirt (these are described as being in disarry [sic]).
But it cannot take place in Shakespeare's contemporary time either, due to various other references throughout the script. The script is written with no real regard to period, therefore period cannot be our lodestone to clothe Polonius.
Furthermore, what evidence we have of Shakespeare's day suggests that the actors wore clothes from all different time periods. They essentially raided their costume racks for each show. So setting the play in Shakespeare's period won't work either. (Furthermore, the play clearly doesn't take place then. It sort of takes place in no real time).
Given all of this: how do we figure out how Polonius [is to] be garbed?
My answer is that Mr. Butler's above objections are mostly flawed, and therefore of no consequence.
First, it makes not a whit of difference how Shakespeare's actors were costumed. His theater, like all theater, followed the theatrical conventions of the time. Valid then. Not valid today.
Second, as I previously noted (in the comments section of Round 1), we get from the text the approximate period in which the play is set, and there are clues in the text to give us, first, what that period cannot be. It cannot be contemporary to Shakespeare (1601), nor can it be in the future (i.e., the future relative to 1601); ergo, the period is sometime in the past (again, relative to 1601). The period represented in Shakespeare's source (Saxo; see my previous but unrelated post on Hamlet for more on this) was ancient even relative to 1601. But for our purpose that source is Shakespeare's business and none of ours, and so can be totally disregarded.
As a matter of fact, the director actually has a fair amount of freedom in staging this play vis-à-vis selecting the period in the past he wishes to use in that staging (relative to 1601), and it really makes no difference at all which in-the-past period he chooses so long as it commits no serious anachronisms vis-à-vis the text. So, a director can pretty much take his past-period pick (again, relative to 1601). He can't go wrong as long as he's consistent throughout in his staging.
In short, my initial answer stands.
Now something more general concerning this particular business, and, by extension, every other business having to do with the staging of this play, or any other for that matter.
In my brief initial answer (in the comments section of Round 1), I only gave a textual warrant for period in answer to this present challenge. Were I directing this play, however, I would not choose to stage it using period-specific sets, and in period-specific costume. Rather, I would choose to stage it period-neutral (i.e., as few physical clues as possible as to specific period), and with as bare a stage as the action would permit consistent with an effective and dramatically coherent realization. I loathe stage trappings and busy-ness, most especially when the text itself is as evocative and rich as is the text of Hamlet. Staging Hamlet bare-stage and period-neutral produces, I think, the most transparent translation possible (i.e., transparent vis-à-vis the realization of the essential dramatic core or vision embodied in the text), and transparency in a director's finished work is, as I've already remarked (here), the directorial ne plus ultra.
All the above, of course, in strict accordance with the theater director's Prime Directive. And just what might that be? Thou mayest do any bloody thing thou wilt in order to realize a dramatically and aesthetically effective translation of the text into its concrete physical realization on the stage so long as what thou doest is consonant with the sense and spirit of the text at every point, and contradicts or diverges from it at none.
Thus spake A.C. Douglas.
Interesting Contrast
(Note: This post has been updated (1) as of 6:28 AM Eastern on 19 Nov. See below.)
Music journalist and blogger Greg Sandow posts an eMail addressing the issue of the changed view of cultural hierarchies and the hierarchies of art, and its practical effect on our present arts culture, from Princeton professor of sociology and research director of Princeton's Center for Arts and Cultural Policy Studies, Paul DiMaggio, that makes an interesting (or jarring, depending on how one responds to such things) contrast with this, and this, and this. Or vice versa.
I offer the above without further comment.
Update (6:28 AM Eastern on 19 Nov): Blogger Alex of Wellsung offers some thoughtful comments on this matter.
Posted by A.C. Douglas on 18 November 2005 | Permalink